Wronskian and related

#math

Some definitions and theorems

A second order linear ODE can be written as $$y'' + p(x)y' + q(x)y = r(x) \tag{1},\ \ \ \ \ x \in \mathcal{I} $$where I is an interval. If r(x)=0,xI, then it is a homogeneous equation.
The existence and uniqueness for (1) is given by

Existence and Uniqueness Theorem

Let p,q,r be continuous in I. If x0I and k0,k1 are two arbitrary real numbers, then (1) has a unique solution y(x) on I such that y(x0)=k0 and y(x0)=k1

Definition

Two functions f and g are defined in I. If there exists constant a,b not both zero such that $$af(x) + bg(x) = 0,\ \ \ \forall x \in \mathcal{I}$$then f and g are linearly dependent in I, otherwise LI.

Wronskian

W(f,g)=|f(x)g(x)f(x)g(x)|$$iscalledthewronskianof$f$and$g$.>[!note]Note>Let$f,g$bedifferentiable.IftheyareLDin$I$,then$W(f,g)=0,xI$.If$W(f,g)0$atanypoint$x0$in$I$,then$f$and$g$areLI>Theconverseisnottrue.If$W(f,g)=0$forall$x$in$I$,itdoesntmean$f,g$areLD

Theorem of Wronskians

  1. If W(y1,y2)=0 at any point in the interval I of the solution set of a linear homogeneous ODE, then it must imply that W=0 everywhere on I, and thus the solutions y1,y2 are Linearly Dependent
  2. If W(y1,y2)0 at any point in the interval I, then it must imply that W0 for all of I, meaning that solutions y1,y2 are LI.

Proof

1.

Consider the linear combination y(x)=ay1+by2 where a,b are arbitrary constants not equal to 0. If W(x0)=0, meaning that the system of solutions $$\begin{align}ay_{1} + by_{2} &= 0 \ ay_{1}' + by_{2}' &= 0 \end{align}$$must have a non-trivial solutions (infinite, actually) for (a,b).
We can clearly see that from the above equations, y(x0)=0 and y(x0)=0.
By uniqueness theorem, the only possible solution for y is y(x)0   xI
This means $$ay_{1} + by_{2} = 0, \ \ \ \forall x \in \mathcal{I}$$meaning y1,y2 are LD

2.

Showing that they are LI is trivial, from the above proof
Instead we shall prove that y1,y2 are indeed the generating set for the solution set of ODE.
I am genuinely tripping balls in this part. Will cover some other day

Relating to W(y1,y2) in I

When we try to compute W we find that $$W' + p(x)W = 0$$The solutions of this linear homogeneous ODE are of the form $$W = C\int e^{-\int pdx}$$and since the exp term cannot be equivalent 0. Which must imply that if W(x0)=0 then C=0, therefore W=0 everywhere in I. Thus y1,y2 are LD.
Similarly if W(x0)0, C0 meaning that W can never be zero anywhere in I, thus y1,y2 are LI.


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